Tuesday, July 12, 2011

An invalidation of Special Relativity and the Hafele Keating Experiment

Special Relativity theory doesn’t permit the existence of any physical clock because Einstein knew physical clocks act differently in motion/acceleration and therefore any physical experiment is dependent upon the interaction of motion/acceleration on the physical clock and not merely his thought equations. For example, the Hafele Keating experiment used atomic clocks to test time dilation, yet if they were consistent with relativity theory, they could have used –

A thought clock, which is nothing more than a rate in the mind
Any clock that has the same properties as a thought clock
Any clock other than an atomic clock
An atomic clock
Any clock with any tick rate at all, just as long as it corresponds to some other local clock rate.
The clock on the plane could have been an atomic clock and the clock on the earth could have been any other clock at all.

In fact SR is such a badly formed theory that we are not to know if the clock rate is changing, or only apparently changing, or what clock is changing, or if any change really occurs at all and time dilation is merely a maths fudge to transform from one reference to another and thereby save light at c in all frames. Also there is no relationship given in SR between the clock rate of the moving clock and the clock rate of the stationary clock, for the formula of simultaneity has nothing to do with clock rates at all, but only motion between two clocks and the speed of light at c between clocks A and B.

In fact the Hafele Keating experiment was flawed right from the beginning because any clock rate on the earth and plane is not known to change within the experiment at all, simply because any change in times between the two clocks could be accounted for in the following ways –
  1. Plane clock sped up and the earth clock sped up at a different rate
  2. Plane clock sped up and the earth clock stayed the same rate
  3. Plane clock sped up and the earth clock slowed down
  4. Plane clock stayed the same rate and the earth clock sped up
  5. Plane clock stayed the same rate and the earth clock stayed the same rate
  6. Plane clock stayed the same rate and the earth clock slowed down
  7. Plane clock slowed down and the earth clock sped up
  8. Plane clock slowed down and the earth clock stayed the same rate
  9. Plane clock slowed down and the earth clock slowed down at a different rate
  10. Plane clock was random over the time of the flight and sped up and slowed down, and the earth clock sped up
  11. Plane clock was random over the time of the flight and sped up and slowed down, and the earth clock remained the same
  12. Plane clock was random over the time of the flight and sped up and slowed down, and the earth clock slowed down
  13. Plane clock was random over the time of the flight and sped up and slowed down, and the earth clock sped up
  14. Plane clock was random over the time of the flight and sped up and slowed down, and the earth clock was random over the time of the flight and sped up and slowed down
  15. Plane clock was under forces as yet not understood and not included in relativity theory and the earth clock was under forces as yet not understood and not included in relativity theory
  16. Plane clock was under forces as yet not understood and not included in relativity theory and the earth clock was not under forces as yet not understood and not included in relativity theory
  17. Plane clock was under forces as yet not understood and not included in relativity theory and the earth clock was only under forces included in relativity theory

In fact its well known that pendulum do undulate with a period due to a cosmic force acting all over the earth. As this force is not accounted for in modern physics (other than the geocentric ether model), then the search for experimental evidence of time dilation was definitely flawed from the beginning because we don't know what effect this force has on atomic clocks.


See the following links for evidence and discussions on the periodic effect of a cosmic cause on pendulums.

http://www.allais.info/panarep/panawork.htm
http://www.allais.info/panarep/colowork.htm
http://www.allais.info/panarep/ozwork.htm


JM

Monday, July 11, 2011

In response to comments made on Dave Armstrongs blog - "Wednesday, June 15, 2011 On Credibility, Conspiracies, and Caution (Guest Post by David Palm Re: Robert Sungenis) "

 Dave has copied David Palms article, "On Credibility, Conspiracies, and Caution (Guest Post by David Palm Re: Robert Sungenis)" and he has now blocked off any further comments in the combox , so I have decided to propose questions to HG, here against the anti geocentric position.

------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------



WG - The Holy Father has no divinely protected authority when speaking on a matter of natural science, as it is considered in itself. He may speak infallibly with regard to the ethical use of the physical sciences, but the sciences themselves are outside his sphere of competency.

JM - This is simply not true and shows the gapping hole in your approach. Pope Leo XIII has taught that the unanimous consent of the fathers is binding on the faithful. The fathers have taught the sun and moon move and the earth is stationary. As such the stationary earth is a matter of faith and this was reiterated by the Popes in response to Galileo and is stated no less than four times that the stars move and the earth is stationary.

Now how do we handle the problem of Leo’s statements about science and the doctrine of geocentrism. Well, as good Catholics we harmonize the statements of all the Popes and we do not perform some poor eisegesis of one or two statements of Popes in isolation.

When Leo XIII made statements about the non binding nature of the church fathers opinions of the science of the day, he did so in the context of having bound the faithful to the unanimous consent of the fathers. As such, any science opinion of the fathers that the faithful are permitted to reject cannot be unanimous consent of the fathers, otherwise Leo has made a very big contradiction right in the same document – Providentisimus Deus.

Further, if we take WG’s comment to its logical conclusion, we can ask the following questions.

Q1- Why do anti geocentrists only selectively quote from Papal statements and ignore the statements concerning the unanimous consent of the fathers as binding on the faithful?

Q2- Why do anti geocentrists believe the removal of books from the index mean the church now teaches the doctrine of geocentrism is no longer part of the faith when the catechism of the council of Trent and other Papal statements against the moving earth have not been overturned?

Q3- Why do anti geocentrists not see that modern science is largely pantheistic and therefore hostile to the faith, whereas geocentrism is thoroughly supernaturalist and therefore, fully compatible with the faith?

Q4- Why do anti geocentrists not see that when geocentrists note that geocentrism is fully compatible with the faith and anti geocentrists fight against the model, then they actually undermine the faith and promote pantheism?

Q5- Why do anti geocentrists not see that geocentrism supports a literal understanding of the creation event in Genesis and as such, why do they attack such a key doctrine of the faith.

Q6- Why do anti geocentrists not see that by attacking geocentrism, they are also attacking the church that taught for 1900 years, that geocentrism was revealed by God?

Q7- Why do anti geocentrists systematically avoid discussing the problems with relativity, Newtonian mechanics and modern cosmological models, yet expect geocentrists to take them seriously on their criticisms of the geocentric model?

Q8- Why do anti geocentrists not see that their often superficial and silly arguments against geocentrism only confirms the geocentric model further and shows geocentrists that the anti geocentrists are so, because of fundamental misunderstandings in physics and cosmology?

Q9- When the fathers taught with a unanimous consent that the earth was stationary, why is this considered a matter for science, when the question of the motion of the earth could not have been studied under science at the time of the fathers?

Q10- When the fathers taught with a unanimous consent that the earth was stationary, why is this considered a matter for science, when the fathers obtained their knowledge of the stationary earth from the sources of revelation and not from any science experiment?

Q11- The NT portrays the cosmos as being Christo-centric, whereby the universe was created by Christ, redeemed by Christ and will be restored by Christ at the end of time. Why then wouldn’t the greatest acts of God, whereby He became man, instituted the Eucharist and the church, died, rose from the dead, ascended into haven and will return again be made at the most significant point within the universe?

Q12- Following this - As modern science says there is no unique point in the universe, but geocentrism teaches the stationary earth is the unique point in the universe, how then does geocentrism conflict with the NT understanding of the universe being Christo-centric?

Q13- Also, as modern science says there is no unique point in the universe, but geocentrism teaches the stationary earth is the unique point in the universe, how then is heliocentrism in conformity with the universe and especially the earth being Christo-centric?

Q14- What parts of scripture use science terminology or science experiment to express the realities that came under the senses, as recorded in the text?

Q15- If there were no experiments performed by the prophets who wrote of the moving sun, moon and stars, and the stationary earth, how then are they to know what bodies are moving past what bodies?

Q16- If the prophets only knew what bodies were moving past other bodies according to the phenomena seen at the time, how do we know that the description given of the moving sun, moon and stars, and the stationary earth is only phenomenological and not real?

Q17- Where the scriptures make statements concerning the moving sun, moon and stars, and the stationary earth, what is the literal sense of those texts?

Q18- Where the scriptures make statements concerning the moving sun, moon and stars, and the stationary earth, how do we know from the laws of exegesis that the text means that the moving sun, moon and stars, and the stationary earth is the intended meaning of the authors?

Answer – we examine the context, genre and the grammatical structure as see that texts throughout the OT literally mean what they say concerning the motions of the heavenly bodies and stationary earth. We also see this is the same understanding expressed by the unanimous consent of the fathers, the catechism of the Council of Trent and the Popes at the time of Galileo. We then conclude the method used is solidly Catholic in all its aspects.

Q19- Where the scriptures make statements concerning the moving sun, moon and stars, and the stationary earth, how do we know from the laws of exegesis that the text means that the moving sun, moon and stars, and the stationary earth is the intended meaning of the authors?

Probable answer – the anti geocentrists must arrive at the conclusion that the statements made in scripture concerning the motions of the heavenly bodies are always in error and only ever state what occurs phenomenally. But to arrive at this conclusion that the scriptures always record motions of the heavenly bodies and the stationary earth phenomenally, means the anti-geocentrist exegete must use a literary method which is currently unknown in biblical exegesis.

Q20- So why would anyone want to use an unbiblical and non magisterial method to arrive at a conclusion concerning the meaning of many statements within scripture that are opposed to what the church thought the texts meant for over 1900 years, using a novel and hence non Catholic method?

Q21- The scriptures state the earth is set on a foundation and cannot be moved. What is the phenomenological basis for these statements and how did the prophets know the earth was set on a foundation, even though modern anti-geocentric science says the earth is not set on any foundation?

Q22- If the statements in scripture concerning the motion of the heavenly bodies and the stationary earth are only to be taken as phenomenal interpretations of events, how then do we know that many other events, which are supposedly historical, are merely interpretations of hearsay, or perhaps even misunderstandings of the author, or even embellishments by the author? After all, if several authors got it wrong on the motions of the heavenly bodies and the stationary earth, why not say the same for many other observations?

Q23- How does the anti-geocentrists account for the approved visions of Hildegard von Bingen, who saw a multi-layered universe that rotated around a stationary earth?

Q24- If the anti geocentrists ignore or refuse to give assent to the approved visions of Hildegard von Bingen, what is their theological basis against the church’s magisterial authority to do so?

Q25- When God created the universe; He did so to then act with and not against His creation. Why then did God make the sun dance at Fatima, when at the time the church taught the earth is stationary and the sun is orbiting the stationary earth?

JM

Sunday, July 10, 2011

In Response to Dr Bridgmans "Heliocentrism's 'Vested Interests'..."

Dr Bridgman has written an article entitled  "Heliocentrism's 'Vested Interests'..." where he attempts to show some reason for his contempt for geocentrism. We see below that his attempts fail badly.


I guess since the facts are against the Geocentrists, they have nothing better to argue.

James Philips (link): Please allow me to make the following observation. I note that generally those who seek to counter (not necessarily including yourself) John Martin and others who hold to the geocentric model of the universe on various blogsites (and sometimes websites) do so with a certain and peculiar viciousness. Such viciousness (maliciousness?) includes sarcasm to the nth degree and various gratuitous ad hominem attacks such as questioning the sanity or asserting the insanity of those who would even question the heliocentric model. This common type of rottweiler/pit bull seemingly fanatical kind of response to those who simply disagree with or question the heliocentric model certainly leaves one to wonder why the degree of viciousness.


To James Philips:


As for my viciousness (maliciousness), why would anyone in their right mind listen to 'knowledge' which does not come from some actual accomplishment in the field they are claiming?  Would you accept medical advice from an actor or other non-medical professional?  There are plenty of people that do that and worse (see
What's the Harm?), and they can pay a high price for ignorance.

If you convince someone that a toxin is not poisonous, and they take a dose of the toxin and die, who is morally responsible for the death?  You?   Or do you just claim that it was their choice and go on your merry way?


Real lives depend on the proper computation of spacecraft trajectories, and not just the lives of astronauts (more below).  The Geocentrists have offered nothing but rhetorical games to back their claims - nothing of the rigor required by science and engineering beyond a word game to relabel the mathematics.


If Geocentrists want to essentially claim 1+1=3 with no evidence other than their say-so, and they are doing it in such a way that OTHERS will pay the price of Geocentrist ignorance, then Geocentrists are in no position to complain about the level of disrespect they are given.


My goal is that no one pays for Geocentrists' ignorance except the Geocentrists who are propagating (and a number of them are profiting) from spreading the ignorance.


James Phillips (link): “One thing is certain: the lives and careers of a good number of individuals in the scientific community are strongly tied to an ironclad maintenance of the heliocentric model.“


Indeed.  And not just in the scientific community... 


There are the lives of astronauts who must be able to trust their navigation.  Where's those geocentric navigation algorithms for them to compute their trajectories?  Haven't seen one yet, and suspect I never will.  So no Geocentists will be traveling beyond the Earth.


There are also the lives of people on Earth depending on earth and space weather forecasting that requires satellites in space.  Global communications depends on satellite technology.  If you don't know where your satellite is, you'll have a heck of a time getting the data back from it. 


YOUR life is better because of the heliocentric model, whether you choose to acknowledge it or not.


If someone wants to pontificate Geocentrist nonsense, then I suggest they move to a undeveloped country which does not have these advantages, where their ignorance will be welcomed and they can do less harm.  Otherwise they just look like hypocrites, reaping advantages of a technology that they clearly have no clue how it actually works.  Others who do know how it works will reap the benefits of better-paying jobs and other economic advantages.


Choose that route, and you'll have to give up your computer, your GPS-enabled cell-phone, any satellite-TV or similar service.  Since modern weather forecast simulations are initialized and checked using data from orbiting satellites, you'll have to give up using long-range weather forecasts.  If you get energy from any main power grids, the safety of those grids from eruptive solar phenomena is monitored by a fleet of solar-observing satellites, such as ACE, GeoTail, SOHO, STEREO (
YouTube: Sentinels of the Heliosphere).  And these are just the first order benefits.  I could go on about the spin-off benefits of the supporting technologies that were developed to achieve these capabilities.

Give up heliocentrism, and everyone in a modern society loses.  You lose as well, regardless of whether you are willing to believe it, or admit it.


But then, history is full examples of societies that fell from their pinnacle due to their collective dogmatic acceptance of some ignorance.


Some points –


The heliosphere shown in your video is the wrong shape. Apparently the correct shape is more like a sphere around the earth shown here - http://www.sciencedaily.com/releases/2009/10/091016101807.htm

Claiming our lives are better because of heliocentrism is devoid of content because you believe relativity which teaches whatever can be calculated in the moving earth frame can also be calculated in the stationary earth frame.

Claiming the space missions are calculated on the helio model, thereby making the moving earth model the better model is also fallacious because you have already stated it is possible within relativity to move the reference frame to a stationary earth.

As your claims are easily answered within your own relativist world view, then I see nothing in your post beyond vacuous claims backed up by no content whatsoever. In fact your world view is so mixed up, your link to the sentinels of the Heliosphere - http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=5VH3Y-OfHnI implies you are not a true believer in relativity theory and you think there is something in the universe that points to a preferred reference frame.

If you a real believer in relativity, why not get together with your NASA and Goddard Flight Center friends and construct a You tube video showing us the satellite motions relative to a stationary earth. All you have to do is fix the earth and move the sun a little quicker and move the satellites in the same elliptical motions. It would be very easy to do and it would show the rest of the world how dedicated you are to relativity theory.

So far, it seems to me that you are a very confused man, because your science education has caused you to think in pragmatic compartments that allows you to both affirm the possibility of geocentrism, but deny its has any practical value and therefore deny that it could be what is really occurring in the universe. As such, you affirm relativity in one recent post, and then deny it in practice in the current post by affirming a preferred reference frame.

If you claim relativity is valid and a stationary reference frame would make the satellite calculations more difficult and therefore this means the heliocentric system is the preferred reference frame, then you have only done so, based on claims of mathematical convenience. But does mathematical convenience demonstrate that satellite orbits are really dependent upon the motion of lack of motion of the earth? Not according to relativity theory, with no preferred reference frame.

If you believe otherwise, then how does relativity provide the means to determine the true relative velocity of the earth around the sun? If relativity is correct, then we could assume any number of relative velocities of the sun and the earth, just so long as the total combined relative velocity between the sun and earth reduces to 30km/s. So relativity theory provides us with an infinite number of velocity solutions to choose from and that’s just between two bodies, yet we are supposed to believe the magic of 30km/s around the sun is the correct earth velocity, to the exclusion of a stationary Earth.

All in all, your recent post is really another demonstration of the modern fascination with eclectic theories about the nature of the solar system and the universe. If it “works” then you can boast about the moving earth and intellectually damn those who object, even though there may well be many other reasons to reject such a theory.

In fact geocentrists do have many reasons and those reasons are given in Galileo Was Wrong. I suggest you read it and then abandon your materialist, empiricist, pantheism in favor of a super-naturalist, creationist and geocentric understanding of the universe.

JM
----------------------------------------------------------------------

Some further thoughts on the above article.



We can go a step further than merely pointing out the obvious permission for more than one reference frame in relativity. We can ask Dr Bridgman to explain why relativity is based upon the definition of simultaneity, using a “stationary system” as stated here –



 “Let us take a system of co-ordinates in which the equations of Newtonian mechanics hold good.2 In order to render our presentation more precise and to distinguish this system of co-ordinates verbally from others which will be introduced hereafter, we call it the “stationary system.”” http://www.fourmilab.ch/etexts/einstein/specrel/www/



Much of relativity is based upon this fundamental need for a stationary system to derive its equations. Einstein used this system in a thought experiment, yet if his theory is to be used in the real, the equations must be based upon a real “stationary system”. So if relativity is true, then a stationary system must exist in the real. Therefore Dr Bridgman should be able to tell us where this stationary system is in the real. Obviously we know where it is, but does he? No.



Alternatively, if this stationary system does not exist in the real, then relativity is only ever a thought system and isn’t possibly applicable in the real. But as it isn’t applicable in the real, how then does Dr Bridgman explain the real success of relativity?



It’s one of the great ironies of modern celestial mechanics that both Newtonian mechanics and relativity have the fundamental basis for their equations in the notion of a “stationary system”, be that either Newton’s absolute space, or Einstein’s non located “stationary system” in his thought experiment.



Even with this fundamental notion of a stationary system, almost universally recognized within both systems, the modern standard cosmological model says there is no place in the universe that is stationary. So we have yet another contradiction between theories. The Newtonian and relativity theories say there must a stationary system in the universe, yet the standard model says there must not be a stationary system within the universe, otherwise all bodies would end up moving towards each other and the total masses of the universe would tend to collapse in on itself.



How do we escape all these fundamental contradictions between modern celestial and cosmological theories? We embrace the true faith and recognize that God has programmed the rotating universe to have forces placed within it to prevent the masses from moving towards each other, through the combined action of the aether flow and the rotating firmament around the stationary earth. Only in this way, does the problem of the collapsing universe resolve itself without the need for the silliness of dark matter and dark energy and the ever expanding universe problem.


JM

Saturday, July 9, 2011

In response to "Some Catholics seek to counter Galileo"

An Article entitled "Some Catholics seek to counter Galileo" tries to paint Robert Sungenis and Geocentrism as being against science. Of course the opposite is true, as shown below - 

Of course, Newton was the next to come up. Although Physics, as a discipline, is a mysterious entity that my brain simply refuses to fully grasp, I could see the basic flaws in his critique of Newton’s Laws. “F = ma!” he stated as if he had struck upon something significant. The same slide espoused Newton’s Law of Universal Gravitation. “Look,” he opined, “The force is the same no matter which object is rotating around the other! Geocentrism is just as valid as heliocentrism and Newton proved it!”

The church has proposed that Galileo’s model is against scripture and Popes have bound Catholics to the teaching of the church fathers, who were all geocentrists. We also note Hildegard Von Bingen’s visions of the universe have also been approved by the church, and as such, because she recorded a stationary earth, Catholics are encouraged to follow this God given information.


Regarding Newtonian mechanics, Catholic geocentrists have good reason to reject Newtonian mechanics as an accurate model of celestial mechanics because of problematic notions such as the barycenter, action at a distance, space as a void without properties, absolute space, the eclectic nature of the two body problem with its perturbations added in to account for all other bodies in the solar system, instantaneous gravity over any length.

One set of those pieces that scientists are currently trying to put back together is the so-called “Axis of Evil.” The hullabaloo is that the axes seem to point to the plane of our elliptical around the sun. This is consistent in the dipole, quadrupole and octopole. Here it is:

 . . . 

If you’re confused, so was I. I have no idea what these diagrams mean aside from something to do with cosmic background radiation. He referred to these images over and over again as proof of… something? Honestly, he made no effort to explain what we were looking at or what it meant. He did take this out of a Science editorial in 2007 by Adrian Cho (subscription required), who summarizes the controversy nicely.
Some suspect that the axis may be an illusion produced by an unaccounted bias in how the satellite works. And even those who have studied the alignments note that exactly how unlikely they appear depends on which mathematical tools researchers use to analyze them. Still, many are taking it seriously. “I would say that with a bit more than 99% confidence you can say there’s something strange,” Schwarz [of the University of Bielefeld, head of one of two teams who discovered the findings] says.
So, we found something we can’t explain. And, because we’ve not got another universe to compare this one against, we have no idea if this interesting phenomena is a statistical fluke, or something else entirely. We have no control group. It’s an observable thing, but, so far, it’s just a thing. The fact that I had spend 20 minutes reading about this phenomena to even have a cursory understanding of what he was talking about shows just how poorly he explained the concepts involved. It was a “Look!! Science!! I’m smarter than you so you couldn’t possibly understand this, but trust me, this is science!” kind of moment. He threw around words like “quasar” “isotropic” and “anisotropic” without definition or explanation. I was annoyed.


The dipole, quadrupole and octopole and the “Axis of Evil” are simple to understand in relation to geocentrism. The information clearly shows there is a universal symmetry around the earths equatorial plane, indicating that the universe is not homogenous and the Copernican principle is false. The diagram is thoroughly consistent with a geocentric universe and thoroughly inconsistent with the homogenous, ever expanding universe found in the pantheistic standard model.

Other “evidence” was the Sloan Digital Sky Survey, which showed all the galaxies in the observable universe, with us at the centre. By definition, if we can see a specific distance all the way around us, we will be in the centre. . .

The diagram which Dr. Sungenis showed had a much larger “void” in the middle where there were no galaxies, likely due to a logarithmic scale, but I can’t be sure as he did not tell us what the scale was or what it meant. The galaxies also seem to occur in specific periods around the Earth, which he pointed out, but again, this proves nothing, as there could be a repeating period, and we are in the one across the middle which includes the Milky Way (not shown, because the Milky Way obscures our view of the universe)


The Sloan Digital Sky Survey is used by Geocenrists who cite published journal articles that have established from quantized red shift data, that the galaxies are located in broad shells around the earth. This evidence is very consistent with geocentrism and very inconsistent with a homogenous universe model.

Finally, he came to his piece de resistance, luminiferious ether. Not only has this concept been thoroughly debunked, he didn’t bother to explain what ether was, or why it had any sort of relevance to his theory. Honestly, I just don’t get it.


Your link to the article that you claim debunks the luminiferous aether theory is simply fallacious for the following reasons –

1. It assumes a moving earth when the MM was set up to provide evidence for a moving earth, hence the article suffers from begging the question.

2. It uses length contraction, which is merely a maths myth invented by Einsteins 1905 relativity paper to account for the null result, when assuming a moving earth.

3. It uses time dilation, which is merely a maths myth invented by Einsteins 1905 relativity paper to account for the null result, when assuming a moving earth.

4. It assumes 30km/s earth velocity, which is only an assumed velocity relative to the sun. Modern science pushes the idea that the earth is moving through space at around 600km/s, so why not use 600km/s instead of 30km/s, or maybe even 630km/s? Answer – the article doesn’t know what it is talking about.

So, your link does not debunk the aether at all. In fact it only shows how desperate modern science is to provide explanations for experiments that did not produce the required fringe shift.

If the earth moves through space at 600km/s, then there should be a large aberration of moon light, yet this aberration has not been found. Why? – Answer – the earth is stationary relative to the moon, therefore geocentrism is the only true model to account for the motions we see.

The rest of your article contains unsubstantiated statements about what Robert did and did not say or evidence in his talk. As such, your entire article smells of your confusions and blatant dishonesty.

JM





Sunday, July 3, 2011

Errors found in the 1905 paper, “On the Elecrodynamics of Moving bodies”



Einstein merely assumes the validity of local clocks in his thought experiment and proceeds from there. As absolute time was universally recognized as being the common sense approach to time before relativity, then the burden of proof clearly lies on the shoulders of Albert concerning the notion and use of time. If Albert merely assumes time is only a local phenomenon, then he must begin his theory, by assuming time is not in any sense absolute and therefore regular, unchanging an universal. This is quite a large step to take. I have analyzed Einstein’s paper – on the electrodynamics of moving bodies and found many problems with his understanding of time.


[quote]
We imagine further that at the two ends A and B of the rod, clocks are placed which synchronize with the clocks of the stationary system, that is to say that their indications correspond at any instant to the ``time of the stationary system'' at the places where they happen to be. These clocks are therefore ``synchronous in the stationary system.''

The ``time'' of an event is that which is given simultaneously with the event by a stationary clock located at the place of the event, this clock being synchronous, and indeed synchronous for all time determinations, with a specified stationary clock. [/quote]


Comments – This is only true if the clock at the event is the same as the prime of common clock, but this assumes the classical understanding of time as absolute and universal to be true, which AE’s theory denies. His statement implies a contradiction. Further arguments concerning the apriori assumption of absolute time will be given below.

Also he still has not defined time. He tries to avoid the problem by appealing to “The ``time'' of an event is that which is given simultaneously with the event by a stationary clock” and hence confuses time with a measure of time.


He also has another problem whereby because he has rejected the classic understanding of time, he cannot tell us which clock is the specified stationary clock in the real, or how this is done in his example. He cannot establish a uniform rate that is applicable to A and B because A only knows a particular measure of time at A and B at B whereby there is no relationship between the two.


There is also the problem concerning what constitutes the relationship between times at the “place of the event” and other places not at the event. He simply ignores the notion of place as having any definite meaning and then assumes the observer, who is also not defined, cannot obtain any information beyond the undefined places of A and B respectively.


He does not determine the nature of the relationship between the two other that to use the speed of light and the concluding maths equation which he uses to define his sole criteria for the determination of synchronization. But this is to reduce the synchronization to


1. two clock rates,

2. the notion of stationary
3. the notion of the observer
4. the notion of the speed of light

Which is to


Define according to quantity without having first proven quantity is the manner in which synchronization is to be properly defined. Which is an error.


Define synchronization assuming the notions of rate, stationary, observer and speed of light are all without error and are the appropriate manner in which these notions are to be used. We have seen that both assumptions are false.


Define synchronization, assuming causation is true and correctly understood by his theory. Yet causation arrives at the conclusion that time is determined from the nature of bodies and as the nature of bodies is not restricted to any particular body or any sum of individual bodies, then time is also not determined by any individual body. Time is then not from a clock, but a clock is only a particular numerical measure of a predetermined rate from a physical phenomena such as a vibrating atom.


Define synchronization according to an arbitrary bench mark which is the speed of light as quantified over a particular distance. This is to assume time traveled over a path between clocks determines time to equate at the two clocks when the difference is zero and to be different times at the clocks when the differences are not zero. He therefore assumes time at each clock is dependent on light speed and velocity between clocks and never demonstrates that this assumption is correct.


Other problems -


Who is this universal observer who can see the two events at one “time” to enable his example to function? AE does not tell us. Essentially AE is using a psychological trick whereby the reader, who psychologically uses the classical understanding of time, can observe outside his A-B clock example to determined that the time at A and B are the same and that the light ray passes from A to B via the classical laws of time.


Another version of this problem is which observer determines the experiment to have occurred? It cannot be A or B, because they both do not know anything outside the immediate place of A and B. It can only be the third, inferred observer who exists outside the experiment, who must be . . . Albert himself!!! Albert becomes the universal bench mark to determine what a uniform rate is, the relationship between the two clocks, whether the experiment occurred and any definition whatsoever he requires for his new version of time to be determined. Albert becomes the


If a light is emitted from A, how does A know the light is bounced back from B? Really if we are to take AE’s definition of time according to what is known in the “place of the event”, then the event not in that place cannot be timed, for only what occurs at the place of the event can be observed.


As the A-B clock example requires a light particle to be beamed from A to B to A, there is required a causal relationship that has the classical understanding of time as an a-prior assumption. For to have an effect, requires that the cause be at least occurring at the same time or even before the time of the effect. But AE attempts to derive a theory whereby the time is not known in the classical sense, which destroys the cause-effect relationship as measured by time.


As the AB clock experiment requires synchronisation of the clocks to be regulated by the light ray, then the uniform rate of the clocks becomes impossible to establish, for before the light ray hits B and returns to A there is no apriori way to synchronise the clocks at both A and B, without accepting apriori, he classical understanding of time, that it is universal throughout all space. One could attempt to answer this by saying the clock could be synchronised before the experiment by placing A next to B, then moving the two clocks apart. But even with this example, the classical understanding of time is assumed a priori and the light ray regulation becomes irrelevant.


The real conclusion so far is that the AB clock thought experiment fails to establish AE’s new understanding of time without assuming apriori that the classical understanding of time is true. His proof is self defeating and fallacious through implicit contradictions.


Further, the A-B clock experiment is that the experiment arrives at a descriptive definition through the use of empirical sciences of physics (notions such as clock rate, length and speed of light are physical properties used in the thought experiment) and maths. But this has the following problems –


The use of physics arrives at only a descriptive definition of time. But, descriptive definitions can be dependent upon either the proper or common accidentals. If through proper accident, such as quantity of a body, then the descriptive definition is based upon, and only describes observable empirical signs, that are not derived from the essence of the thing being defined. This means that the descriptive definition does not tell us anything about the essence of the thing defined, whereby the essence is not presented to the senses, but can only be known through the intellect via abstraction. In this manner, definitions derived from philosophy, determine the nature of the thing defined from the nature of the philosophical properties that immediately flow out from the underlying essence. The difference between these manners of defining are illustrated below according to the descriptive philosophical manners in which time is defined.


According to natural philosophy we can determine the nature of bodies that must have quantity sealed by primary matter as its cause of individuation of bodies (united with substantial form and being), to cause bodies to exist. From quantity as the foundational accident that resides in substance, we can determine the notions of before and after from location or place that flows from the accident of a body as quantified. Any change or movement can then be measured by a number (which is a mental being), via a relationship towards before and after. This accident as it is a relationship, or a be towards another, is the measure of movement according to before and after, known as time. Time is then defined as numbered movement according to before and after.


In summary, the philosophical definition of time is determined from the following argument.

1. Body is a substance caused from a combination of essence and being. Then,
2. Body is cause from a unity of substantial form (SF as prime principle of determinacy in the order of substance) and primary matter (PM as prime principle of indeterminacy in the order of substance) combined as an essence, plus being. Then
3. Body is caused as it is limited or individuated in the real as SF+PM+be+quantity, whereby quantity is the foundational accident dependent upon substance and through which all other accidents are also dependent.
4. Place is dependent upon quantity and before and after in place, are manners in which location is known in place.
5. Movement is from place to place as it is from before and after.
6. Movement is measured according to before and after via a number, whereby the number is a mental being that has a real relationship to before and after. The number as a measure of movement is founded upon the real, but is of itself a mental being.
7. This accident of numbered movement is known as time, which is determined in the real according to before and after.
8. Therefore time is defined as numbered movement according to before and after.
As a corollary of this definition, because number is of itself a mental being, it is then indifferent to the real, and is independent of any change of rate. As the number cannot be fast or slow, neither time can be fast or slow in the real.

The empirical definition is derived as follows.


We observe some things move with a constant rate. But rate is assigned a number and number is associated with the before and after of the movement occurring in the rate observed. A movement of uniform rate is known as a clock and the quantified movement according to before and after is known as time. Therefore the empirical definition for time is - Numbered movement as measured by a clock according to before and after.


Now if we take an observer distant from a real clock we can then define time as observed relative to the clock according to this manner of defining.

We use the above empirical definition and notice that an observer distant from the clock is dependent for his knowledge of time upon

§ The time or number measured by the clock

§ The distance from the clock
§ The speed of light
§ Velocity between the observer and the clock.

We then say that the observers definition of time, or time as known is - Numbered movement as measured by a clock, as it appears to the observer, who is dependent upon relative velocity, according to before and after. (A corollary of this definition is that the empirical definition is dependent upon the philosophical definition. ) This definition is contracted to read – clock rate observed as it is dependent upon relative velocity. This is close to the definition used by AE, whereby time is derived from the clock and can vary dependent upon the location and relative velocity of the observer.


We now have three definitions whereby the second and third definitions are dependent upon the prior definitions as follows –

1. Numbered movement according to before and after
2. Numbered movement as measured by a clock according to before and after.
3. Clock rate observed, as it is dependent upon relative velocity

We then use a clock experiment like AE’s thought experiment to determine the validity of his assumptions and conclusions and to find the experiment is deficient in several manners, the chief of which is that he confuses 3 with 1 as indicated above.

Under the title of “On the relativity of times and lengths”, synchronous time is then compared to time measured in a moving system. In the stationary frame the rod is of length L where clocks A and B at either end of the rod synchronise according to the equation given above. Then -


[quote] We imagine further that with each clock there is a moving observer, and that these observers apply to both clocks the criterion established in § 1 for the synchronization of two clocks. Let a ray of light depart from A at the time4 tA, let it be reflected at B at the time tB, and reach A again at the time t’A. Taking into consideration the principle of the constancy of the velocity of light we find that
tB- tA= rAB/(c-v) and t’A- tB = rAB/(c+v)
where rABdenotes the length of the moving rod--measured in the stationary system. Observers moving with the moving rod would thus find that the two clocks were not synchronous, while observers in the stationary system would declare the clocks to be synchronous. [/quote]

Again this seems like a compelling argument for length contraction/time dilation, yet there is a fallacy in the conclusion, for time is to be understood in two manners according to

1. Time, as measured by the clocks A and B (call this clock face time at Clocks A and B).

2. Time, which is the duration for the light to travel from clock A to B and back again.

The difference between the stationary and moving examples is evidently the time taken for the light to travel between the clocks (duration), which concludes to a mathematical difference of clock synchronisation between the stationary and moving examples. AE’s example, as expected, has the time (duration) differences change as the c+v and c-v are used as denominators in his equation. Yet the problem is that the equation is based on differences in times derived from both clock face time and duration. But clock face time and duration are based on two different realities, the former on the clock face position and the later on the speed of light.

For the moving clocks A and B, the face rate does not change according to the movement of the rod, as the light traveling from clock A to B cannot change the clock speeds. Therefore ontologically the clocks A and B will always be synchronized regardless of the rods speed.


Further, the equation equivocates the two notions of time, which then contradicts the ontological reality that, according to the principle of identity, the duration at both clocks is the same duration for the light to travel between the clocks, yet AE wants us to believe it is different.


Also AE never establishes that clock face rate is associated with rod movement, nor can he possibly do this without equivocation. Another way of putting this is that the clocks A and B measure a uniform rate of motion, whereby the numbers indicated on the clocks have a reference to this rate according to before and after. This rate and the numerical measure of this rate is unaffected by the motion of lack of motion of the clocks, which concludes to the times measured by the clocks are always synchronised regardless of the existence of motion of the rod or not. AE’s synchronisation equation is misleading to say the least, and his use of the equation to later derive equations for time dilation and length contraction ignore the reality of time synchronisation that is independent of the speed of light of motion between clocks.


Later, AE then states


[quote] So we see that we cannot attach any absolute signification to the concept of simultaneity, but that two events which, viewed from a system of co-ordinates, are simultaneous, can no longer be looked upon as simultaneous events when envisaged from a system which is in motion relatively to that system. [/quote]


This is to be distinguished as follows.

Clocks A and B will always be synchronised ontologically for the rods speed has no ontological effect on the clock rates. The times at A and B will always be simultaneous regardless of a stationary or moving clock. This may be expressed by the following equation to represent ontological simultaneity, which is simply this

tA= tB

Which is always true regardless of the reference frame, and regardless of the velocity of the rod.


However an important point is to be made as well that shows AE has made a correct conclusion in one respect. There is an apparent lack of simultaneity in the clock times due to the clock time differences not coinciding for the examples of stationary and moving rods. Yet this difference is a difference of light speeds only and has no effect on the clock speeds or clock synchronisation. The apparent clock difference is based on the real light speed difference between clocks A and B and is only apparent, based on a visual aberration caused by the varying light speeds. Time however does not ontologically change rate and this is the point both AE and many relativists miss.


Conclusion – The apparent change in time differences cannot be used to demonstrate a real change in rod length as such a change would be ontological. AE thinks he can, so relativity is invalid.

[quote]

Section 3 of ON THE ELECTRODYNAMICS OF MOVING BODIES

In the first place it is clear that the equations must be linear on account of the properties of homogeneity which we attribute to space and time. [/quote]


The question arises concerning homogeneity, which we attribute to space and time. If time is homogenous then one wonders how AE will later claim time can dilate?

Later AE establishes a system of coordinates to define the place and time of a system k.


[quote]

If we place x'=x-vt, it is clear that a point at rest in the system k must have a system of values x', y, z, independent of time. We first define as a function of x', y, z, and t. To do this we have to express in equations that is nothing else than the summary of the data of clocks at rest in system k, which have been synchronized according to the rule given in § 1. [/quote]


We’ve already seen above that the equation of synchronisation requires distinctions to be carefully made to allow the real consequences of the equation to be known. We have made the distinction between the notions of time classically understood and the two manners in which AE uses the notion of time. We’ve also seen that the equation was derived based on some errors previously exposed.

Another distinction also needs to be made concerning what it is that defines the coordinate system. The values of x,y and z are mathematical coordinate points that locate a point in place. But as place is a continuum, these coordinates are a manner in which the location of a point within a continuum is to be determined. The fourth term, t, which is a measure of time, is also part of a continuum.


Continuum is distinguished according to the following-


Permanent continuum is where the parts of the continuum coexist, such as a line, surface or volume, which are divisible according to 1, 2 and 3 dimensions respectively. A mathematical continuum is a quantitative continuum, whereby all the quantities, or parts of the continuum are had potentially within the continuum. For example a mathematical continuum of a cube defined by the coordinates to have a 1x1x1m cubed volume, the parts of ½, ¼ and so exist potentially within the cube. As the mathematical continuum is quantitative, its parts are divisible infinitely.


A physical permanent continuum is a continuum had “in the concrete”, where the parts of the continuum coexist, but the parts cannot be divided infinitely. Such as a continuum of steel requires a minimum width, a continuum of water requires a minimum molecule size. A physical permanent continuum has parts that are determined to have a minimum size according to natural minima derived from the physical property of quality of the substance, whereby the minima parts are distinguished according to parts had according to different modes.


For example, parts exist in the continuum, yet the parts exist in different modes according to location, some existing within the continuum, while others located at the termination or end of the continuum. The physical permanent continuum exists in act as a whole, with its parts existing in potency, whereby parts of the whole exist through division of the whole. Such a continuum in the real is a natural extended body, which determines that the physical permanent continuum can only be of three dimensions (and no more or less).


The mathematical continuum is an abstract continuum whereby the dimensions had as directly represent dimensions had in the real. Mathematical continuums consist of lines, surfaces and volumes, that reflect edges, surfaces and solid bodies respectively had in the concrete. The mathematical continuum may consist of one, two or three dimensions when directly representing the real. The dimensions quantified directly represent the dimensions known through imagination. For example, a cube of 1m3 is a quantity containing quantified lengths, breadths and heights that directly represent the lengths, breadths and heights had in a real cube of say marble.


There is also another mode of mathematical continuum whereby the dimensions as quantified only indirectly represent the dimensions known through imagination, and in this mode of continuum, there can be any number of dimensions. Such mathematical continuums are later used in relativity by others such as Minkowski.


AE’s example uses four coordinates of x,y,z and t. Coordinates x,y and z are used to locate parts within a permanent mathematical continuum and t is used to determine the time at which the event occurs within a fluid continuum. As the theory now proposed involves the mixing of two contrary continuums, AE should have demonstrated how these can be harmonised from the very natures of continuum, place, and time.


We note that he does not do this, which shows he does not understand the nature of the continuum and from this error, he arrives at a notion called the space-time continuum that contains several contradictions such as

1. A continuum that contains both permanent parts (space) and non permanent parts (time).
2. A continuum that contains quantities that are derived from lengths and not from lengths (quantities of time are derived from movement).
3. A continuum that contains quantities that are local (non universal length) and quantities that are universal (the common number assigned to universal time).
4. A continuum that contains quantities that can change, such as length and position, with quantities then cannot change according to a universal rate as determined from the nature of time.
5. A continuum when applied in the real has parts in bodies that cannot be divided infinitely due to a natural minima of bodies, and parts in time that can be divided infinitely according to the nature of number as a measure of time.
There is also the problem the continuum contains several contrary notions of time, such as universal time, clock rate and duration. Also in his theory above, he uses time, t, as a clock time or a variable to define a coordinate system, which he intends to use to derive maths equations to establish his theory. But as maths is indifferent to existence in the real, the variable t, needed to firstly be established from the definition of time and not from its measure according to a clock. This error also permeates his theory.

There is a side note also as follows - The lack of knowledge concerning the notion of continuum within the science community has shown that the notions of a mathematical continuum and a physical continuum are routinely mixed up. A mathematical continuum may be valid according to it numerical derivation (relativity is not this), and yet it can be misunderstood to reflect of indicate the existence of a real physical continuum. Relativists consistently exchange the former for the later, which is the non sequitur fallacy.


Conclusion -


It is very evident from the many errors so far encountered with the derivation of the theory of relativity, that the theory is fundamentally flawed in many ways and can never be reconciled with reality. Therefore, relativity theory needs to be abandoned by science and in its place, a new theory be substituted, based on the reality of moderate realist philosophy, scientific facts obtained through observation and the God revealed cosmology of geocentrism.


Comments continued concerning Alberts document - ON THE ELECTRODYNAMICS OF MOVING BODIES

A mathematical consequence of AE’s version of time.


We have shown that there are innumerable problems with the time synchronisation thought experiment that AE uses to develop his theory of relativity. For his experiment to be valid it has to


1. Assume time is universal, absolute and uniform, and


2. His experiment then only works for the stationary scenario


Which concludes to an equation where t’=t. But this removes all his transforms to nothing and reduces his theory to that of the classical physics of Newton.


For AE’s times determined from his A-B clock thought experiment, the two clocks are simultaneous when at rest in K’


t’A- tB = tB- tA –(1)


Using this definition of time as


Time is that which is regulates distant clocks by light rays


He arrives at equations 2 and 3, when moving at v in K relative to K’, AE arrives at the following-


tB- tA = AB/ (c-v’) (2)


t’A - tB=AB/(c+v’) (3)


Where c is the velocity of light. Equations 2 and 3 do not satisfy 1 and consequently as we have already seen on another post

[quote]

So we see that we cannot attach any absolute signification to the concept of simultaneity, but that two events which, viewed from a system of co-ordinates, are simultaneous, can no longer be looked upon as simultaneous events when envisaged from a system which is in motion relatively to that system. [/quote]


Later in section 5 § 5. The Composition of Velocities, he examines the situation whereby two systems moved relative to each other, one with velocity w and the other u, The velocity of one system relative to the other is then, when moving in the same direction according to x’=w+u and according to x’’=w-u, he arrives at the equations

x’= (w+u)/(1+(uw’)/c2) (4)


x’’= (w-u)/(1-(uw’)/c2) (5)


Using AE’s own equations 4 and 5 where w=c and u=v then


x’= (c+v)/(1+(vc)/c2) (6)

x’’= (c-v)/(1-(vc)/c2) (7)

which reduce to


x’= c (8)


x’’= c (9)


And substituting back into equations 4 and 5 we conclude to


t’A- tB = tB- tA (10)


Which is the same equation as 1 above. We see that from AE’s definition of time and synchronisation, that when times are synchronous in one reference (inertial) frame, they are synchronous with all other reference (inertial) frames, which is an absolute. But this is contradictory to his theory, where he says “we cannot attach any absolute signification to the concept of simultaneity”, which and shows relativity to be in error. Therefore using AE’s own principles, relativity is invalidated.


Comments continued concerning Alberts document - ON THE ELECTRODYNAMICS OF MOVING BODIES

Another invalidation of Relativity


The classical understanding of time has units by which the number of time is to be measured, which is typically seconds or a variation thereof such as 60 seconds equals a minute. This unit of measure is to be understood as universal and absolute. However, AE’s understanding of time we can ask what is the common unit for time calculation?


From AE’s A-B clock thought experiment, each clock is measured by each observer, independently of any other clock. As each clock runs independently of any other clock, there can be no common time unit.


AE briefly infers a reference to time unit where he says immediately before he presents his clock experiment

[quote] But this co-ordination has the disadvantage that it is not independent of the standpoint of the observer with the watch or clock, as we know from experience. We arrive at a much more practical determination along the following line of thought [/quote]


The phrase “as we know from experience” means he is using an example that is foundational to his theory, whereby time is known independently of any other clock.

Now an equation is developed whereby a light ray is moved from A to B and then back to A which equates to


2AB/(t’A - t’A) = c (1)


Which is universal constant whereby his clock experiment could occur at any point in the universe, therefore his equation must also hold true throughout the universe. (Which in itself is an absolute and which contradicts his understanding that time synchronisation cannot be understood in any absolute manner).


With the above equation (1), a question comes to mind – what are the units to be used for t and t’? To answer this we need to see that AE’s clock example assumes that in a stationary frame, the light speed has a constant value derived or at least implied by the equation


c=d/time (2)


where d is the distance between clocks A and B. From AE’s clock example which is given below for reference
If at the point A of space there is a clock, an observer at A can determine the time values of events in the immediate proximity of A by finding the positions of the hands which are simultaneous with these events. If there is at the point B of space another clock in all respects resembling the one at A, it is possible for an observer at B to determine the time values of events in the immediate neighbourhood of B. But it is not possible without further assumption to compare, in respect of time, an event at A with an event at B. We have so far defined only an ``A time'' and a ``B time.'' We have not defined a common ``time'' for A and B, for the latter cannot be defined at all unless we establish by definition that the ``time'' required by light to travel from A to B equals the ``time'' it requires to travel from B to A. Let a ray of light start at the ``A time'' tA from A towards B, let it at the ``B time'' tB be reflected at B in the direction of A, and arrive again at A at the ``A time'' t’A.

In accordance with definition the two clocks synchronize if


tB - tA = t’A- tB (3)

But this equation that AE uses to define time can only be true if the light ray has the same properties it had from A as it has from B. But if the time unit between A and B changes then the light ray has different properties between A and B that it has from B to A, which means that the light ray from A to B is not the same as the light ray from B to A. To vary time according to t and t’ then breaches the principle of identity that says the above equation (2) requires the units of time for A to B to be the same from B to A.

Or according to equations for light speed from A to B


c=d/time A-B (4)


where d is the distance from A to B and time A-B is the time taken from A to B which has units determined from clock A. We can assume the time units from A are A-seconds for the sake of clarity.


The equation for light speed from B to A is


c=d/time B-A (5)


where d is the distance from A to B and time A-B is the time taken from A to B which has units determined from clock B. We can assume the time units from A are B-seconds for the sake of clarity.


But as the units of A-seconds are not B-seconds, then light from A to B is not the same light from B to A. But the units in the equation three given below according to


tB - tA = t’A- tB (3)


require the units of time at A and B to be the same, otherwise equation 3 becomes a meaningless bundle of numbers, each with different units. It would be like saying the time frame A-B is 10 seconds and from B-A is 12 quasi seconds, where seconds and quasi seconds have no relationship to each other, because each unit is determined by clocks A and B independently of each other.


As relativity breaches the laws of causation and makes the fundamental equations of relativity meaningless, relativity is invalidated.


A secondary conclusion of this invalidation is that the statement – light has a speed of 300,000km/s is meaningless.



Comments continued concerning Alberts document - ON THE ELECTRODYNAMICS OF MOVING BODIES

The classical understanding of time has units by which the number of time is to be measured, which is typically seconds or a variation thereof such as 60 seconds equals a minute. This unit of measure is to be understood as universal and absolute. However, AE’s understanding of time we can ask what is the common unit for time calculation?


From AE’s A-B clock thought experiment, each clock is measured by each observer, independently of any other clock. As each clock runs independently of any other clock, there can be no common time unit.


AE briefly infers a reference to time unit where he says immediately before he presents his clock experiment



The phrase “as we know from experience” means he is using an example that is foundational to his theory, whereby time is known independently of any other clock.


Now an equation is developed whereby a light ray is moved from A to B and then back to A which equates to


2AB/(t’A - t’A) = c (1)


Which is universal constant whereby his clock experiment could occur at any point in the universe, therefore his equation must also hold true throughout the universe. (Which in itself is an absolute and which contradicts his understanding that time synchronisation cannot be understood in any absolute manner).


With the above equation (1), a question comes to mind – what are the units to be used for t and t’? To answer this we need to see that AE’s clock example assumes that in a stationary frame, the light speed has a constant value derived or at least implied by the equation


c=d/time (2)


where d is the distance between clocks A and B. From AE’s clock example which is given below for reference


But this equation that AE uses to define time can only be true if the light ray has the same properties it had from A as it has from B. But if the time unit between A and B changes then the light ray has different properties between A and B that it has from B to A, which means that the light ray from A to B is not the same as the light ray from B to A. To vary time according to t and t’ then breaches the principle of identity that says the above equation (2) requires the units of time for A to B to be the same from B to A.


Or according to equations for light speed from A to B


c=d/time A-B (4)


where d is the distance from A to B and time A-B is the time taken from A to B which has units determined from clock A. We can assume the time units from A are A-seconds for the sake of clarity.


The equation for light speed from B to A is


c=d/time B-A (5)


where d is the distance from A to B and time A-B is the time taken from A to B which has units determined from clock B. We can assume the time units from A are B-seconds for the sake of clarity.


But as the units of A-seconds are not B-seconds, then light from A to B is not the same light from B to A. But the units in the equation three given below according to


tB - tA = t’A- tB (3)


require the units of time at A and B to be the same, otherwise equation 3 becomes a meaningless bundle of numbers, each with different units. It would be like saying the time frame A-B is 10 seconds and from B-A is 12 quasi seconds, where seconds and quasi seconds have no relationship to each other, because each unit is determined by clocks A and B independently of each other.


As relativity breaches the laws of causation and makes the fundamental equations of relativity meaningless, relativity is invalidated.


A secondary conclusion of this invalidation is that the statement – light has a speed of 300,000km/s is meaningless.


------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Further conclusions regarding the A-B clock experiment

1. The time unit is unknowable


2. The light ray outside the vicinity of either A or B is unknowable to A or B, making the light ray inconceivable along the flight path between A and B.


3. As the time constantly changes between A and B, or time between A and B is unknown to either A or B, then an equation for the flight path between A and B in not possible to derive with any real meaning.


4. The constant velocity of light applies only to the observers in their own immediate reference frame, meaning that the light velocity is unknown from one reference frame to the other.


5. As the time unit is unknowable, then relativity invalidates the famous equation E=mc2, but this equation has been validated, so relativity is invalidated.