Further Questions on the Westminster Confession of Faith.

Some further questions are proposed for the reader to consider with regard to statements made in the Westminster Confession of Faith.

[quote]I. Those whom God effectually calls, He also freely justifies;[1] not by infusing righteousness into them, but by pardoning their sins, and by accounting and accepting their persons as righteous; not for any thing wrought in them, or done by them, but for Christ's sake alone; nor by imputing faith itself, the act of believing, or any other evangelical obedience to them, as their righteousness; but by imputing the obedience and satisfaction of Christ unto them,[2] they receiving and resting on Him and His righteousness by faith; which faith they have not of themselves, it is the gift of God.[3] [/quote]

Question – God’s call is said to be linked directly to justification. Where in the scriptures is God’s calling always linked directly to justification and thereby indicates that all grace of calling is irresistible? If there is one verse that indicates men can act against God’s calling, then irresistible grace is debunked.

Question – If God accounts persons righteous, “not by anything . . . done by them”, how does God account persons righteous by faith, when faith is an act done by the person? Isn’t the Westminster confession (WC) self contradictory here? Why not?

Question – If God accounts righteousness “not for any thing wrought in them, or done by them”, why doesn’t God account all men righteous for Christ's sake alone? After all, if faith is not an act “done by them” [the justified], then faith need not be done, and hence God can justify any person apart from anything that person has done.

Question – If God accounts a man just, apart from any thing “done by them”, why not account faith to the person as well?

[quote] II. Faith, thus receiving and resting on Christ and His righteousness, is the alone instrument of justification:[4] yet is it not alone in the person justified, but is ever accompanied with all other saving graces, and is no dead faith, but works by love.[5] [/quote]

Question – If there are no verses that actually state faith is an instrument, why did God never say faith is an instrument, when faith is essential to justification?

Question – If faith is an instrument, how do you know, if all the evidence in the scriptures is only from prepositions such as “through” or “by” in association with faith?

Question – If faith is an instrument, why would God make such a truth that is so essential, so vague?

Question – If faith is an instrument, why is this truth not found in church history until the reformation? Did the Holy Spirit fail to teach the church until the reformation? If so, how can you be sure the HS is teaching the truth in the WC?

Question – If faith is an instrument, what is the instrument? What does it do? What does it not do?

Question – If faith is an instrument, how does it differ from a virtue such as hope and love?

Question – If faith is an instrument, what are the consequences of the instrument with regard to sin and grace? Should we equate grace with an instrument?

Question – If faith is taught by the WC to be an instrument, but is in fact a virtue and not an instrument then the WC teaching on justification is false, is it not?

Question – If faith “is ever accompanied with all other saving graces” why don’t these graces act as an instrument with faith to justify, when there are no texts that actually teach faith alone, or faith is ever alone?

Question – If faith is alone that justifies and faith is an instrument and there are no explicit texts that teach either of these apparent truths, what certitude does one have that both are true, over any claim that they are merely the inventions of men?

Question – The WC says in another text that scripture interprets scripture via the explicit interpretation the implicit, or more vague texts. If faith as an instrument is only known through implicit or vague texts, how do we know that such is true when there are no explicit texts as required by the method described by the WC?

Question – What assurance does one have that the WC’s teaching is true, when the only scriptural evidence for faith as an instrument is a number of prepositions, assumed to infer faith as an instrument, without any other explicit scriptural support, or without any support from church history? Not much, or none at all.

[quote] [4] JOH 1:12 But as many as received him, to them gave he power to become the sons of God, even to them that believe on his name: ROM 3:28 Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith without the deeds of the law. ROM 5:1 Therefore being justified by faith, we have peace with God through our Lord Jesus Christ. [/quote]

Question – If faith is an instrument, that alone causes justification, how does faith not exclude the work of Christ? After all, alone means alone and not another cause of justification.

Question – If faith is an instrument, why use the word “alone” when no text in the NT ever associates the phrase “faith alone” with justification, except James 2:24, which denies man is justified by faith alone.

Question – If faith is an instrument, why not hope and love, or any other virtue?

Question – If faith is an instrument, why is not faith a virtue like hope and love?

Question – If faith is an instrument, that is dead without love, why is love not an instrument as well that informs love?

Question – If faith is an instrument, and faith alone justifies, how is faith alone, when it must be informed by love to be living?

Question – If faith is an instrument, accompanied by saving graces that works through love, how does one not lose justification if one sins against love?

Question – If sin against love does not cause a loss of love in union with faith how can love still exist along with sin?

Question – If sin against love does cause a loss of love, how can faith alone justify, without love that is said to be an accompanied saving grace?

[quote] III. Christ, by His obedience and death, did fully discharge the debt of all those that are thus justified, and did make a proper, real and full satisfaction to His Father's justice in their behalf.[6] Yet, in as much as He was given by the Father for them;[7] and His obedience and satisfaction accepted in their stead;[8] and both, freely, not for any thing in them; their justification is only of free grace;[9] that both the exact justice, and rich grace of God might be glorified in the justification of sinners.[10] [/quote]

Question – the justified can sin but not lose justification, can one sin against faith and not lose justification? After all after one has faith, then according to the WC, one cannot lose justification.

Question – If the only sin is a sin against faith that causes a loss of justification, what happens to faith as an instrument? Does the instrument become annihilated, or does God put it back into heaven?

Question – Justification and sanctification are separated in the WC, yet Justification and sanctification are not doctrinally separate in church history. What confidence does one have that the separation of Justification and sanctification are correct, when the separation is an novelty based upon no explicit texts for faith as an instrument and no texts that say faith alone justifies?

[quote]IV. God did, from all eternity, decree to justify all the elect,[11] and Christ did, in the fullness of time, die for their sins, and rise again for their justification:[12] nevertheless, they are not justified, until the Holy Spirit does, in due time, actually apply Christ unto them.[13] [/quote]

Question – If the HS applies Christ unto them and cause them to be holy, what need is there for justification by faith alone? If one is made holy by the HS, why not have the work of the HS as the cause of justification?

Question – If the HS causes both faith and sanctification, why separate the two acts, when both are cause by the same HS?

[quote]V. God does continue to forgive the sins of those that are justified;[14] and although they can never fall from the state of justification,[15] yet they may, by their sins, fall under God's fatherly displeasure, and not have the light of His countenance restored unto them, until they humble themselves, confess their sins, beg pardon, and renew their faith and repentance.[16] [/quote]

Question – If “they can never fall from the state of justification”, then they can act against saving graces of love done in works with faith. So the saving graces of love and good works can be lost, but not justification, which saves. How does this reasoning make any sense?

Question – If one cannot lose justification, then justification is for the elect who are called and have faith. Such means justification is tied into unconditional election of the saints. How can election be unconditional when faith is required as a condition for justification?

[quote]VI. The justification of believers under the Old Testament was, in all these respects, one and the same with the justification of believers under the New Testament.[17] [/quote]

Question – If the justification of believers is the same in the OT and NT, why was king David and Israel both punished for sin when Christ took the punishment for sin as a penal substitute on the cross?

JM